1y ago

Homework sucks

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When it killed fascists
- When has it killed fascists without being backed by capitalism?
  
  When has capitalism killed fascists without being backed by socialism, under a government that is the closest America has ever been to being a social democracy?
  Especially compared to its preferred modus operandi, supporting the fascists and assassinating union organizers.
  
  The easy answer there is World War Two started 1 September 1939 and the soviets got involved 17 September of that year.
  Now I’m sure you’ll answer my question, right?
  
  I don't consider "rat fucking the Spanish Republic, unlike the socialists" and "getting absolutely bodied in Poland and France" to be "killing fascists," but yes, I did, twice now.
  I'll give you this though.
  It was ultimately a capitalist that killed Hitler.
  
  Kind of rude but thanks for the answer.
  What years were Poland and France?
  
  1939-1940.
  The period of 1940-1941 saw the monarchists hide on their island, refusing to move troops from their imperial holdings to defend their supposed allies in Yugoslavia, Norway, Denmark, and Greece, except in the form of token expeditionary forces who were completely ineffective.
  They, of course, could not actually remove the standing troops from most of their colonial holdings, as it would almost certainly result in a popular revolt, with good cause, as demonstrated by the Bengal Famine of 1943, not to be confused with the similar in purpose and cause Bengal Famine of 1770.
  
  But the capitalists were already involved in the war at that point?
  
  The ones with a hereditary ruling class and an openly genocidal empire did indeed lose every land battle during this time while struggling to defeat a 3rd rate navy in the Mediterranean.
  If you want to call that "killing fascists," knock yourself out, just don't ask yourself what you would call the British Empire if it existed today.
  We'll also, for the sake of your argument, completely ignore the Second Sino Japanese War that had been going on since 1937.
  
  Didn’t Nazi Germany start off helping the Chinese before they switch sides and fought with the Japanese in that war?
  
  It's very complicated. Germany wanted a three way alliance between Germany, China, and Japan, starting with all parties joining the Anti-Comintern Pact, but Chiang Kai-Shek refused to join a pact with Japan while they held Chinese territory from the First Sino Japanese War.
  The Nazis tried to modernize the KMT forces so they could chase Mao's tattered and at the time thoroughly spanked army into their mountain hideouts, but the KMT was, quite frankly, a clusterfuck of corrupt nepotism hires so it didn't really work out.
  The KMT losing Nanjing pretty much immediately following the outbreak of war firmly ended any further cooperation, as Germany's goal was gaining access to resources and it seemed like Japan would get them all in short order anyways.
  However, Chiang Kai-Shek and Mao, and most of their allied warlords, set aside their differences to try and repel the Japanese invasion, and rolled most of their armies into the NRA, which funnily enough was originally organized with Soviet aid in the 1920s to help defeat the leftover Qing warlords, and were able to stall out the Japanese in the interior.
  It was still an absolute clusterfuck, and China in total lost over 22 million citizens to combat, famine, and outright genocide from the IJA, while inflicting 2.5+ million Japanese casualties (the majority of the losses Japan suffered in WW2 btw), but at least initially the KMT and Communist forces cooperated, with the KMT receiving aid from America and the Maoists receiving aid from the Soviets.

122 comments