There is ongoing litigation concerning the improvement of rights restoration and dismantling of felony disenfranchisement in five states.
I'm not entirely against disenfranchising felons, however if'n you're going to do that, you shouldn't be counting them as part of the voting age population.
I'd say if'n they haven't fully repaid their debt to society, ie fines, etc, but they should be able to do that without Florida's type of BS. That and the double standard needs to go.
If I understand the first part correctly, you don't think they should have the right to vote (the right to representation) if they haven't fully repaid their debt to society? Why not?
Edit: What I'm getting at is why even strip the right to vote to begin with? What purpose does that serve?
Murderers, burglars, and r*pists should definitely lose their right to vote.
Oh, and all the "good 'ol boys" in the deep south that are felons that everyone lets walk free because society likes them so much? They should just suffer the death penalty.